Give scientific reasons : The human male never passes on the gene for haemophilia to his son.
The gene for haemophilia is present on $X$-chromosome. $A$ male has only one $X$-chromosome which he receives from his mother and $Y$-chromosome from father. The human male passes the $\mathrm{X}$ chromosome to his daughters but not to the male progeny (son).
A man whose father was colour blind marries a woman who had a colour blind mother and normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be colour blind?
If a colour blind lady marries a normal man, their children will be
Colour blindness in man is
Haemolytic jaundice is caused due to a dominant gene but only $10\%$ of the people actually develop the disease. A heterozygous man marries a homozygous normal woman; what proportion of the children would be expected to develop the haemolytic disease
A man with normal vision whose father was colourblind marries with women whose father was also colourblind. Suppose their first child is daughter then what are the chances of this child to be colourblind?